Spangler - Blog Post 1
In Locke’s
Chapter V he assumes the inherent ability of man to value property such that 1)
they can use it to the ‘best’ of its ability for us ‘to enjoy’ (Par 31), and 2)
can divide and trade property in a way that upholds the law of nature such that
all are treated equally and independently.
Both of those rely strongly on his theological premise that the world was given to Man in common. Having studied “Locke’s Letter Concerning Toleration,” I have seen firsthand Locke’s tendency to manipulate the scripture to assist the people of the era in coming to conclusions through his seemingly Bible-backed arguments. This is seen in Chapter V when he states, “Nothing was made by God for Man to spoil or destroy” (Par 31) he is seemingly claiming that enjoyment and destruction are mutually exclusive. By simply stating his own theological commandments in conjunction with the Bible, he sets out a blueprint for crafting an ideal citizen out of your run-of-mill 16th-century religious fanatic. This can also be seen Par 77. Smith interestingly parallels this in his use of the shepherd’s analogy, however they vastly different conclusions from it.
Where I see the most major philosophical difference between Locke and
Smith (on property) is in their views on equality. Locke does not seem to believe Man should exist undemocratically, whereas Smith seems convinced government is
a result and continuation of the inequality of man. In Paragraph 14, Smith lays
out a very similar argument to Hobbes of how Man in making a decision for themselves
is able to make a more intelligent decision for the betterment of society.
I believe that this idea of inherent inequality is what makes it much
more difficult for Smith to lay out his views on property and the nominal form
of government, as the existence of greater men almost necessitates that those
men are given superiority. Locke’s steadfast focus on equality allows him to present
democracy as the solution to many issues that are rooted in this inherent
inequality.
Comments
Second, the point about inequality and equality is really interesting. But I wonder if Locke has an opposite problem that the invention of money is an attempt to solve, i.e. how to get unequal holdings from equal status.